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NEW QUESTION # 11
A daily backup job for seven Hyper-V VMs has been configured at the main site, keeping 14 days' worth of backup files. They want to get a copy of the VM backups to a repository at the disaster recovery site. They want to keep six months' worth of backup files at the disaster recovery site. They also need to be able to restore the VMs to any given day within two months and any given week within six months. How should a backup copy job be configured to meet these requirements?
- A. Use immediate copy (mirroring) mode, keeping 62 days of retention and 26 weekly GFS restore points.
- B. Use periodic copy (pruning) mode, keeping 180 days of retention.
- C. Use periodic copy (pruning) mode, keeping 62 days of retention and six monthly GFS restore points.
- D. Use immediate copy (mirroring) mode, keeping 180 days of retention.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
According to the Veeam Backup & Replication user guide1, you can use a long-term retention policy (GFS) to keep backup files for longer periods oftime. GFS stands for grandfather-father-son and refers to a backup rotation scheme that allows you to create weekly, monthly, quarterly and yearly restore points12.
Therefore, if you want to be able to restore the VMs to any given day within two months and any given week within six months, you should use a GFS policy with 62 days of retention and 26 weekly GFS restore points.
The simplest configuration would be an immediate copy (mirroring) mode with these settings (option B).
NEW QUESTION # 12
An administrator Is asked to change a backup copy Job from periodic mode to immediate mode. How can this be accomplished?
- A. Right click on the job name and choose immediate.
- B. Create a new backup copy job and delete the original job.
- C. Enable immediate in the backup copy job settings drop down.
- D. Copy the original backup copy job to a different folder and remap the job.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
https://helpcenter.veeam.com/archive/backup/110/vsphere/backup_copy_modes.html
NEW QUESTION # 13
What does Veeam's Secure Restore functionality ensure during restores?
- A. Anti-virus scanning
- B. Custom ports for in-flight data
- C. Proper rights/permissions on files and folders
- D. 256-bit AES encryption of in-flight data
Answer: A
Explanation:
Veeam's Secure Restore functionality is designed to provide an additional layer of security during the restore process, particularly to ensure that restored data is free from malware. The correct answer is D: Anti-virus scanning. Secure Restore integrates with antivirus software to scan the data being restored for malware, viruses, or other threats before it is brought back into the production environment. This capability is crucial in today's landscape, where data integrity and security are paramount, especially considering the increasing sophistication of cyber threats. By ensuring that restored data is scanned for threats, Veeam helps maintain the integrity and security of the IT environment, aligning with best practices for data protection and disaster recovery.
NEW QUESTION # 14
A company needs several VMware thick provisioned VMs restored. The physical proxies used for restoration have access to the Fibre Channel datastores used by VMware. Which transport mode will be used by default to restore these VMs?
- A. Quick Migration
- B. Network mode
- C. Direct Storage Access
- D. Virtual appliance
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/direct_san_access.html?ver=120
NEW QUESTION # 15
What is a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) in regards to disaster recovery?
- A. The number of recovery points created during the backup process
- B. The total cost associated with recovering a system
- C. The acceptable data loss measured in time that can be tolerated
- D. The maximum amount of time it takes to restore a system
Answer: C
Explanation:
In the context of disaster recovery, the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is best defined by option B: The acceptable data loss measured in time that can be tolerated. RPO is a critical metric in disaster recovery and business continuity planning that specifies the maximum amount of data (measured in time) that an organization can afford to lose in the event of a disaster or system failure. It effectively sets the limit for how frequently data backups or replications should occur. For instance, an RPO of 4 hours means that the organization must be able to recover data from no more than 4 hours prior to the disaster, implying that backup or replication operations should occur at least every 4 hours. Establishing an RPO is essential for developing an effective data protection strategy, as it guides the choice of backup methodologies and technologies to meet the organization's tolerance for data loss.
NEW QUESTION # 16
Which of the following are valid backup locations for a licensed version of the Veeam Agent for Microsoft Windows? Choose 3
- A. USB drive
- B. Microsoft OneDrive
- C. Veeam backup repository
- D. Azure BLOB storage
- E. Tape drive
- F. Google drive
Answer: A,C,D
NEW QUESTION # 17
An engineer is configuring Veeam Backup and Replication for an organization to protect a VMware environment using vSAN. The backup proxy must be isolated from the VMkernel.
Which transport mode should the engineer use?
- A. Direct NFS access
- B. Virtual appliance
- C. Network mode
- D. Direct SAN access
Answer: B
Explanation:
When configuring Veeam Backup & Replication in a VMware vSAN environment, the best practice is to use the Virtual Appliance transport mode. This mode is also referred to as "hot-add" and allows the backup proxy to mount VM disks directly from the datastore. This method is more isolated from the VMkernel network traffic, as it does not require network connectivity to the hosts to retrieve data, thus providing a level of isolation that meets the requirement stated in the question. The Direct NFS and Direct SAN options are not applicable for vSAN, and Network mode would not provide the necessary isolation from VMkernel network traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 18
For general data protection regulation (GDPR) compliance, Veeam can add a location tag to which component?
- A. File copy job
- B. Scale-out Backup Repositories
- C. WAN accelerator
- D. Proxy server
Answer: B
Explanation:
For GDPR compliance, Veeam provides the capability to add location tags to Scale-out Backup Repositories. Location tags in Veeam Backup & Replication are used to identify the location of data, which is essential for adhering to data sovereignty laws like GDPR. Location tagging helps ensure that data residency requirements are met by keeping data in a defined geographical area.
In the context of GDPR, it's important to manage and control where personal data is stored and processed. Proxy servers, file copy jobs, and WAN accelerators do not have the functionality to be tagged for GDPR compliance in the same manner as repositories within Veeam Backup & Replication.
NEW QUESTION # 19
Veeam is being used to back up a Microsoft SQL VM with transaction logs being backed up every 30 minutes to a repository that is local to the Veeam Backup and Replication server. Business requirements dictate that the database backup and all logs also be stored on a secondary, standalone repository in the DR datacenter.
What should the Veeam engineer configure to meet the requirements?
- A. Backup Copy Job in Immediate mode
- B. Backup Copy Job using the SQL Transaction Log Job as the source
- C. Backup Copy Job in Periodic Copy mode
- D. SOBR with Copy mode enabled
Answer: B
Explanation:
In Veeam Backup & Replication, to meet the business requirements of having both the database backup and transaction logs stored at a secondary location, a Backup Copy Job can be configured. The Backup Copy Job can be set to include both the VM backup and the transaction logs, ensuring that the database's recovery points are consistent and available at the DR site. The transaction logs backup every 30 minutes can be specified as the source for the Backup Copy Job, ensuring that the transaction log backups are also copied to the secondary repository.
NEW QUESTION # 20
A request to protect some new domain controllers has been submitted in the ticketing system.
The engineer creates a backup job with the following steps:
1. Right-clicks on the Jobs navigation item on the left
2. Selects VMware vSphere from the menu
3. Enters a name for the job.
4. Selects workloads to protect.
5. Defines a job schedule.
6. Clicks the Finish button.
When testing restores, the engineer finds that the backups are crash-consistent. Which set of steps should the engineer use to avoid crash-consistent backups for the domain controllers?
- A. Launch the New Backup Job Wizard. Enter a name for the iob. Select workloads to protect.
Choose a destination. Enable the Application-Aware checkbox and confiqure settinqs. Define a job schedule.
Click the Finish button. - B. Launch the New Backup Job Wizard Enter a name for the job Specify a backup repository.
Specify Guest Processing settings. Define a job schedule Click the Finish button. - C. Launch the New Backup Job Wizard. Enter a name and a description. Select a resource pool to protect. Specify a backup repository with copy-mode enabled. Define a job schedule. Click the Finish button.
- D. Launch the New Backup Job Wizard Enter a name or description for the job. Select the vSphere environment to protect. Choose the Default Backup Repository Check the box labelled 'Run the job when I click Finish". Specify Guest Processing settings. Define a job schedule.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Application-aware processing is a feature in Veeam Backup & Replication that creates transactionally consistent backup images of VMs. For domain controllers, this feature ensures that backups are consistent with the applications running on the VM, like Active Directory services. To avoid crash- consistent backups and ensure application consistency, the engineer must enable the Application-Aware Processing option during the job configuration.
NEW QUESTION # 21
An infrastructure with 50 VMs has a power outage. After the VMware cluster has booted up again, 10 medium-sized VMs have corrupted VM disk files. Which action can be used to restore the VMs back to the production state?
- A. Perform Restore VM Files and restore the VM configuration and disk files.
- B. Perform Instant VM Recovery with quick rollback.
- C. Perform Restore VM Files and only restore the VM configuration files.
- D. Use the "Restore guest files" option and restore all VM Files.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
By performing a restore of only the VM configuration files, you can quickly recreate the VM in VMware vSphere using the existing disk files on thedatastore. This method avoids the need to transfer or copy large VM disk files, resulting in a faster restoration process. Note that this method assumes that the VM disk files are still intact on the datastore. If any of the VM disk files are missing or corrupted, you may need to consider alternative restoration methods or perform a full restore from the Veeam backup files.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which Veeam Backup & Replication functionality achieves the lowest RPO?
- A. Snapshot-based Replication
- B. File to Tape
- C. Continuous Data Protection
- D. Backup Copy Job
Answer: C
Explanation:
Within Veeam Backup & Replication, the functionality that achieves the lowest Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is B: Continuous Data Protection (CDP). CDP is designed to protect critical workloads by continuously capturing changes and replicating them to a target site, allowing for very low RPOs, often measured in seconds. This is achieved through the use of VMware's vSphere APIs for I/O Filtering (VAIO), which intercepts and replicates I/O streams almost in real-time. CDP is particularly valuable for applications that require high levels of availability and cannot tolerate significant data loss. By providing near-continuous replication, CDP ensures that in the event of a failure or disaster, data loss can be minimized to a very narrow window, significantly reducing the potential impact on business operations.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Which is the mount server component used?
- A. When the remote backup repository is a CIPS share
- B. When backing up to tape at a remote site
- C. When there are multiple backup servers
- D. When restoring files or application items with Veeam Explorers
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 24
What is the primary benefit of configuring replica mapping?
- A. Compressed WAN traffic
- B. Deduplicated WAN traffic
- C. Reduced WAN traffic
- D. Encrypted WAN traffic
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following actions generated the data recommended when raising a technical support case regarding a failed Veeam Backup & Replication job?
- A. Export the license file from the configuration options in Enterprise Manager
- B. Take a Veeam Zip of the VMs involved in the failed job
- C. Generate a zip of log files using the Support Information function
- D. Manually run a Veeam configuration backup to generate a new .bco file
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 26
What can Veeam Service Providers deploy in the Veeam Service Provider Console v7.0?
- A. Veeam One
- B. Veeam Backup for Microsoft 365
- C. Enterprise pluqins
- D. Veeam backup aqents
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the Veeam Service Provider Console v7.0, Veeam Service Providers can deploy C: Veeam Backup for Microsoft 365. This deployment option is designed to extend the capabilities of Veeam Service Providers, allowing them to offer managed backup services for Microsoft 365 environments, including Exchange Online, SharePoint Online, OneDrive for Business, and Microsoft Teams. Veeam Backup for Microsoft 365 is a comprehensive solution that provides secure backup of Microsoft 365 data, ensuring its availability and recoverability in the event of accidental deletion, security threats, or retention policy gaps. By integrating this solution into the Veeam Service Provider Console, service providers can manage and monitor Microsoft 365 backups across multiple tenants, enhancing their service offerings and providing added value to their customers.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Select the correct description of a synthetic full backup.
- A. A synthetic full backup combines a VBK file with one or more VIB files from a repository to generate a new VBK file
- B. A synthetic full backup will generate a new VBK file by getting data from the hypervisor
- C. A synthetic full backup will update the existing VBK with data from the hypervisor and generate a new VRB file
- D. A synthetic full backup combines a VIB file with one or more VBK files from a repository to generate a new VBK file
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/hyperv/synthetic_full_backup.html?ver=100
NEW QUESTION # 28
A backup of a Linux VM running on a VMware cluster has been created. In which scenario can the Quick Rollback option be used during a Full VM Restore of the VM?
- A. Migration of VM to VMware host in a different data center
- B. Issues caused by VM software update
- C. Issues caused by host power outage
- D. Migration of VM to Hyper-V host in same data center
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 29
An environment is using Veeam Agent for Microsoft Windows and has Microsoft Exchange 2016 with regular database availability groups (DAGs) configured. What option is required to properly back up the databases?
- A. Failover Cluster
- B. Exchange Processing
- C. Advanced Exchange Backup
- D. Standalone server
Answer: A
Explanation:
The procedure of adding a Microsoft Exchange Database Availability Group (DAG) to a Veeam Agent backup job differs depending on the type of the DAG that you want to process: For a regular DAG, the backup job configuration procedure is the same as for any failover cluster. To process a regular DAG, you must configure a Veeam Agent backup job for a failover clusterhttps://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/agents/dag_hiw.html?ver=120
NEW QUESTION # 30
What type of backup can Veeam Plug-ins for Enterprise Applications provide?
- A. A transactionallyconsistent backup of active director
- B. A complete backup of the database and the host server
- C. A transactionallyconsistent backup of the database and its database logs
- D. A backup of changes to the database after the agent backs up the whole server
Answer: C
Explanation:
Veeam Plug-ins for Enterprise Applications provide a transactionally consistent backup of databases and their database logs. This ensures that the backup is not only complete but also consistent at a transactional level, capturing all transactions up to the point of the backup. This is crucial for databases to ensure data integrity and consistency when restored.References:Veeam Plug-ins for Enterprise Applications Guide, Veeam Database Backup Best Practices
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which Vepdm Backup & Replication feature component is able to utilize Microsoft SQL Server transaction log backups for point-in-time restore?
- A. Instant Recovery
- B. U-AIR Microsoft SQL Recovery wizard
- C. Veeam Explorer for Microsoft SQL
- D. Full VM Restore
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following services are installed on every Veeam backup proxy server? Choose two options.
- A. Veeam Data Mover Service
- B. Veeam Distribution Service
- C. Veeam Installer Service
- D. Veeam Backup Catalog Service
- E. Veeam Backup Service
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
Explanation
Refer tohttps://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/backup_proxy.html?ver=100
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following statements regarding the Backup from Storage Snapshots feature when backing up virtual machines from a VMware vSphere environment are true? (Choose two.)
- A. Lower impact on WAN link during off-site backups
- B. A virtual machine with one virtual drive on shared storage and another drive on local storage will be processes with Backup from Storage Snapshots transport mode
- C. Higher transfer speed from production NFS datastores
- D. Reduce the impact of consolidating VM snapshots
- E. A virtual machine with one virtual drive on shared storage and another drive on local storage will failover to a different transport mode
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION # 34
A Windows VM running on Microsoft Hyper-V is protected using the file indexing option. The guest interaction proxy is offline. Which of the following Veeam servers will be used to deploy the runtime during the backup process?
- A. Backup & Replication server
- B. File proxy server
- C. Virtual lab server
- D. Indexing database server
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
https://helpcenter.veeam.com/archive/backup/110/hyperv/guest_interaction_proxy.html According to the Veeam Software Help Center1, Veeam Backup & Replication deploys runtime components on a VM guest OS to perform file indexing. These components can be either non-persistent or persistent depending on whether you have enabled application-aware processing for the VM.
If you have enabled application-aware processing for the VM, Veeam Backup & Replication uses a persistent agent component that is installed on the VM guest OS during backup job session and remains on the VM after that. In this case, if the guest interaction proxy is offline, Veeam Backup & Replication will use another available guest interaction proxy or fail over to the backup server.
If you have not enabled application-aware processing for the VM, Veeam Backup & Replication uses a non-persistent runtime component that is deployed on the fly and removed after indexing is complete. In this case, if the guest interaction proxy is offline, Veeam Backup & Replication will use another available guest interaction proxy or fail over to the backup server.
NEW QUESTION # 35
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